Hello I Am A Bit Confused And I Ve Been Stuck On This All Day It Has To Do W

Hello – I am a bit confused and I’ve been stuck on this all day – it has to do with valuing swaps using the Zero Coupon Valuation method, I know how to use the Zero Coupon Valuation method on bonds but I have no clue on how it works with swaps? I know you produce one cash flow at maturity date which is found using a result of finding the zero coupon rate. Anways here are the two swaps:

Swap A: ALTECO pays 3% p.a. on a principal of US$450m and receives 4% p.a. on a principal of £250 million. Cash flows are exchanged semi-annually and it is exactly six months to the next swap payment date. The swap has eighteen months to run. 

Swap B: ALTECO pays six-month sterling LIBOR on a principal of £350 million and receives six-month US dollar LIBOR on a principal of US$500 million. Cash flows are exchanged semi-annually and it is exactly six months to the next swap payment date. The swap has three years to run. 

The current exchange rate for sterling is £1 = US$1.60 and the LIBOR/swap term structures in the UK and US are as follows (all rates continuously compounded):

Term

0 replies

Leave a Reply

Want to join the discussion?
Feel free to contribute!

Leave a Reply